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There's probably no scientific logic involved and a simple explanation that being ignorant to technical specifics I don't know but..
I was lucky enough to play a mark VI today that has hardly ever been played, perhaps what you might call mint, together with original case and 2short shank mouthpieces no less!
It was a 75*** and had just had the pads replaeced as they had broken down after years of sitting in the case. To play it was a dream, and sung right through the register with ease, like you would expect , but heres the thing- side by side to mine ( 125*** ) and with the same mouthpiece the general sound in terms of timbre and projection , was completely different.
My tech noticed it as well, it was nowhere as fat or warm as mine, big if you like , I mean it was still a good consistent tone, but nowhere near as appealing to our ears.
We were amazed at the difference. Mine has maybe 20 % laquer and was made a few years later , but why such a difference?
I was lucky enough to play a mark VI today that has hardly ever been played, perhaps what you might call mint, together with original case and 2short shank mouthpieces no less!
It was a 75*** and had just had the pads replaeced as they had broken down after years of sitting in the case. To play it was a dream, and sung right through the register with ease, like you would expect , but heres the thing- side by side to mine ( 125*** ) and with the same mouthpiece the general sound in terms of timbre and projection , was completely different.
My tech noticed it as well, it was nowhere as fat or warm as mine, big if you like , I mean it was still a good consistent tone, but nowhere near as appealing to our ears.
We were amazed at the difference. Mine has maybe 20 % laquer and was made a few years later , but why such a difference?